110 TOP NEUROLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf

NEUROLOGY Multiple Choice Questions and Answers pdf :-

1. A brain disorder marked by gradual deterioration of mental capacity, memory impairment, and confusion is known as?

A. Alzheimer disease
B. cerebral palsy
C. Tourette syndrome
D. myasthenia gravis

Ans:A

2. This sign/reflex is used to diagnose meningitis:

A. Hormans
B. Brudzinski
C. anterior drawer
D. startle
Ans:B

3. Demyelination is defined as?

A. loss of an axon in a neuron
B. loss of dendrites in a neuron
C. loss of protective sheath surrounding neurons
D. loss of the connective tissue between neurons
Ans:C

4. Serotonin and dopamine are?

A. neurotransmitters
B. components of CSF
C. only found in patients with neurological disorders
D. components of the myelin sheath

Ans:A

5. A sulcus is also known as a?

A. cortex
B. fissure
C. lobe
D. medulla
Ans: B

6. The cauda equina is located?

A. at the beginning of the spinal cord above the atlas
B. in the cerebellum
C. between vertebrae
D. at the end of the spinal cord below the first lumbar vertebra

Ans: D

7. Which part of the brain regulates heartbeat, breathing, and other vital functions?

A. brainstem
B. gray matter
C. occipital lobe
D. white matter

Ans:A

8. A specialized cell which conducts nerve impulses is called a (an) ?

A. glial cell
B. epithelial cell
C. neuron
D. proton

Ans: C

9. The term convulsion means a (an) ?

A. injury resulting from a blow
B. tremor
C. violent involuntary muscular contractions and relaxations
D. involuntary and quick repetitious spasms of a muscle

Ans:A

10. Which of the following procedures is used to withdraw cerebrospinal fluid?

A. myelography
B. cerebral angioplasty
C. lumbar puncture
D. MRA

Ans: C

11. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?

A.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSS A nalysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
B.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, EEG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
C.The patient presents with a history of progressive light hemiparesis. Skull films, EKG, and CSF analysis were all normal. MRH will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.
D.The patient presents with a history of progressive right hemiparesis. Skull films, ECG, and ESF analysis were all normal. MRA will be ordered to assess cerebral blood flow.

Ans: B

12. The term medulloblastoma refers to a (an) ?

A. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
B. star-shaped tumor
C. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
D. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere

Ans: D

13. A chronic disease characterized by a loss of the myelin sheath, causing paresthesias, muscle weakness, and unsteady gait is called?

A. multiple sclerosis
B. cerebral palsy
C. Huntington chorea
D. narcolepsy

Ans: A

14. A type of brain surgery that uses a system of three-dimensional coordinates to locate the operative site is called?

A. densitometric
B. microsurgery
C. sterotactic
D. laparoscopic

Ans: C

15. The combining for radicul/o refers to a?

A. nerve cell
B. membrane
C. nerve root
D. sheath

Ans: C

16. The term anencephalus means a (an) ?

A. congenital absence of the brain and cranial space
B. lack of memory
C. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
D. loss of sensation

Ans: B

17. Diminished sensitivity to stimulation is called?

A. hypesthesia
B. anesthesia
C. bradykinesia
D. hyperesthesia

Ans: A

18. The term encephalocele refers to a (an) ?

A. rapidly growing malignant tumor
B. congenital hernia in which meninges protrude through an opening in the skull or spinal column
C. abnormal smallness of the head
D. protrusion of the brain through any opening in the skull

Ans: D

19. The fluid-filled cavities in the brain containing CSF are called?

A. plexuses
B. sulci
C. synapses
D. ventricles

Ans: D

20. The term hypesthesia refers to?

A. sensation of numbness, tingling, prickling, etc.
B. lessening of sensitivity to touch
C. decreased sensitivity to pain
D. consciousness

Ans: B

21. Failure of muscle coordination, including unsteady movements and staggering walk, due to disorders in the cerebellum is called?

A. anoxia
B. dyslexia
C. paraplegia
D. ataxia

Ans: D

22. Which of the following is the term for an abnormal accumulation of CSF fluid in the brain?

A. Huntington disease
B. hydrocephalus
C. multiple sclerosis
D. spina bifida

Ans: B

23. The inability to use or understand spoken or written language because of a brain lesion is known as?

A. anosmia
B. aphasia
C. dyslexia
D. dysphagia

Ans: B

24. Which of the following is transcribed correctly?

A.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
B.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
C.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of thenar muscles with slight atrophy. NCV shows decreased conduction velocity.
D.Examination of the thumb shows weakness of the plantar muscles with slight atrophy. MCV shows decreased conduction velocity.

Ans: C

25. How many pairs of cranial nerves are there in the nervous system?

A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 16

Ans: B

26. The equally divided halves of the brain are known as?

A. cerebral gyri
B. cerebral sulci
C. cerebral cortex
D. cerebral hemispheres

Ans: D

27. The term anarthria refers to the?

A. inability to read
B. inability to remember
C. inability to speak
D. inability to speak remembered words properly

Ans: C

28. The term dysmetria means?

A. the inability to read despite normal vision
B. the impairment of intellectual ability
C. the inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
D. severe pain along the course of a nerve

Ans: C

29. Tabes dorsalis is a term that means?

A. terminal portion of the spinal cord and roots of spinal nerves below the first lubar nerve
B. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
C. disease of CNS, usually caused by syphilis
D. rare disease of nervous system; Guillain-Barre sundrome

Ans: C

30. Retrogasserian neurotomy is a (an) ?

A. interruption of a nerve fiber tract within the spinal cord for relief of pain
B. dissection of the posterior root of the trigeminal ganglion
C. excision of a nerve
D. suture of a nerve

Ans: B

31. The term meralgia paresthetica refers to?

A. sensitivity to pain
B. severe pain along the course of a nerve
C. disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations in the thigh
D. sharp pain along a nerve

Ans: B

32. Which of the following is a column of nervous tissue extending from the medulla oblongata to the second lumbar vertebra?

A. brain stem
B. cauda equine
C. nerve root
D. spinal cord

Ans: D

33. Which of the following is the largest part of the brain?

A. pons
B. cerebrum
C. cerebellum
D. basal ganglia

Ans: B

34. The term agnosia refers to the (a) ?

A. inability to read
B. inability to fix the range of movement in muscular activity
C. severe sharp pain
D. loss of the power to recognize sensory stimuli even though sensory facilities are intact
Ans: D

35. The brainstem consists of the?

A. cerebellum, cerebrum, and spinal cord
B. dura mater and the pia mater
C. pons, midbrain, and medulla oblongata
D. thalamus and hypothalmamus

Ans: C

36. The brain and the spinal cord make up the?

A. autonomic nervous system
B. brainstem
C. cerebral cortex
D. central nervous system

Ans: D

37. Which of the following is characterized by a lack of muscular coordination caused by a loss of oxygen during pregnancy or the perinatal period?

A. encephalopathy
B. Bell palsy
C. Cerebral palsy
D. concussion

Ans: C

38. The somatic nervous system

A. is part of the central nervous system
B. regulates voluntary motor control
C. regulates involuntary motor control
D. transmits impulses to the cerebrum

Ans: B

39. The term parethesia refers to?

A. severe pain along the course of a nerve
B. the sensation of numbness, pricking, burning, crawling, or tingling
C. a disease marked by tingling, itching, and disturbing sensations
D. impairment or lessening of sensitivity to touch

Ans: B

40. Which of the following is caused by a thrombus which occludes an artery leading to or within the brain?

A. aneurysm
B. cerebrovascular accident
C. cardiovascular accident
D. ictal event

Ans: B

41. The term astrocytoma refers to a (an) ?

A. tumor composed of neuroglial cells (astrocytes)
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. soft, infiltrating malignant tumor of the roof of the fourth ventricle and cerebellum
D. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells

Ans: A

42. The germ gliosis refers to?

A. proliferation of neuroglial tissue in CNS
B. impairment of sensitivity to touch
C. inflammation of the spinal cord
D. to and fro movement of the eyeballs as seen in brain damage

Ans: A

43. Which of the following terms is associated with degeneration of nerves in the basal ganglia that leads to tremors, weakness of muscles, masklike facies, and slowness of movement?

A. meningitis
B. chorea
C. Parkinson disease
D. Tourette syndrome

Ans: C

44. The term glioblastoma multiforme refers to a (an) ?

A. rapidly growing malignant tumor composed of primitive glial cells
B. tumor arising from specialized tissue found in the brain and spinal cord
C. tumor composed of glial cells in the cerebral hemisphere
D. inflammation of the brain and spinal cord and their membranes

Ans: A

45. Babinski and Hoffman are tests to evaluate?

A. response to pain
B. motor coordination
C. gait
D. reflexes

Ans: D

46. A pituitary tumor that protrudes through the diaphragma sella is most likely to cause:

A. bilateral cecocentral scotomata
B. B. bilateral lower field cut
C. C. bitemporal hemianopia
D. D. binasal hemianopia
E. E. diplopia

Ans: C

47. According to cumulative data from many sources: Is the Ketogenic Diet effective in making ALL patients seizure-free?

A. Yes – All patients become seizure-free
B. No: only half will become seizure-free
C. No: a third of patients will become seizure-free
D. It is not effective at all

Ans: C

48. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet?

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

49. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

50. One can test for ketone bodies in the blood/urine to determine level of ketosis.

A. True
B. False

Ans: A

NEUROLOGY Objective type Questions and Answers ::

51. These are possible side effects while on the KD:

A. Death
B. Constipation
C. Kidney Stones
D. None, only medications have side effects
E. a,b, and c

Ans: E

52. Do NOT use KetoCal for patients with:

A. Nasal congestion
B. Blindness
C. Lactose intolerance
D. Hard to deal with parents

Ans: C

53. KetoCal 4:1 formulation contains ___% fat?

A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%

Ans: B

54. KetoCal 3:1 formulation contains ___% fat?

A. 97%
B. 90%
C. 87%
D. 82%

Ans: C

55. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?

A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. KetoCal 3:1 lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above

Ans: D

56. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 3:1?

A. Sucrose
B. Corn Syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose

Ans: C

57. What is the protein source in KetoCal formulas?

A. Soy
B. Cow’s milk
C. Amino Acids
D. Soy & Milk

Ans: B

58. Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) is a nutritionally complete ketogenic formula?

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

59. KetoCal formulas contain ____% MCT?

A. 30%
B. 10%
C. 5%
D. None

Ans: D

60. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30 kcals/oz?

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

61. Which Nutricia product should NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?

A. Super Soluble Duocal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix

Ans: A

62. Both KetoCal 3:1 and 4:1 are vanilla flavored?

A. Yes
B. No, Only 4:1 is flavored
C. No, Only 3:1 is flavored
D. Both are unflavored

Ans: B

63. When preparing KetoCal, the amount of water added will change the ratio?

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

64. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

65. Is it safe to cook with KetoCal?

A. No – heating denature the formula
B. Yes, except it cannot be frozen
C. Yes

Ans: C

66. Research has shown that the LCT (long chain triglycerides) diet is more effective than the MCT (medium chain triglycerides) in efficacy.

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

67. _______ is a possible alternative dietary treatment for seizures which restricts CHOs (10-20g/day). This diet can induce ketosis, does not restrict protein, fluid or calories and does not require an admission or fast.

A. MCT diet
B. Low-glycemic index diet
C. Modified Atkins Diet (MAD.

Ans: C

68. The Modified Atkins Diet (MAD) highly discourages fruits, breads and starches. It also has fewer carbohydrate restrictions than the low-glycemic index diet

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

69. What additional supplements are necessary when consuming KetoCal®?

A. Multivitamin
B. Calcium
C. Carnitine
D. None, it is nutritionally complete for most patients

Ans: D

70. The purpose of adding modulars to KetoCal would be to change the ketogenic ratio

A. True
B. False

Ans:A

71. KetoCal is best initiated and weaned fast over the course of only a few days.

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

72. Nutricia provides the following formulations of KetoCal:

A. 1:1 and 2:1 ratio
B. 2:1 and 3:1 ratio
C. 3:1 and 4:1 ratio

Ans: C

73. The Ketogenic Diet is a diet low in fat and high in carbohydrate.

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

74. When deciding to use a 3:1 or 4:1 ratio KetoCal, consider:

A. the age of the patient
B. the number of seizures
C. the type of seizures
D. the dietitian caring for the patient

Ans: A

75. KetoCal formulas are indicated for…

A. Intractable epilepsy
B. Pyruvate dehydrogenase deficiency
C. Glucose transporter type-1 deficiency
D. All of the above

Ans: D

76. A 3:1 ratio is typically prescribed over a 4:1 ratio because of…?

A. Patient age
B. Patient’s protein needs
C. Lacks artificial flavoring
D. All of the above

Ans: D

77. What is the carbohydrate source in KetoCal 4:1?

A. Sucrose
B. Corn syrup solids
C. Lactose
D. Glucose

Ans: B

78. KetoCal 3:1 has a mild vanilla flavor and is sweetened with aspartame.

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

79. What is the suggested water temperature for mixing KetoCal formulas?

A. 100° F
B. 110°F – 120°F
C. 113°F – 122°F
D. 150°F

Ans: C

80. What is the protein source in Ross Carbohydrate Free (RCF) ?

A. Soy
B. Cow’s milk
C. Amino acids
D. Soy and milk

Ans: A

81. Does KetoCal have an infant indication?

A. Yes
B. No

Ans: B

82. KetoCal 4:1’s recommended dilution is 30kcals/oz

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

83. Which Nutricia product can NOT be incorporated into a Ketogenic Diet?

A. Ducoal
B. Polycal
C. Protifar
D. Complete Amino Acid Mix

Ans: A

84. What is the hang time for KetoCal formula?

A. 2 hours
B. 4 hours
C. 5 hours
D. 24 hours

Ans: B

85. KetoCal 4:1 provides at least 100% of all vitamin and minerals in as little as 40% of energy requirements

A. True
B. False

Ans: B

86. upper motor neurons are central. true or false?

A. true
B. false

Ans: A

87. lower motor neurons are central. true or false?

A. true
B. false

Ans: B

88. After observing a pts normal gait, you can conclude that which of the following are intact?

A. sensory
B. motor
C. vestibular function
D. cerebellar
E. all of the above

Ans: E

89. What are the most important CN’s to test for the neurological exam, because they are most commonly affected with hemispheric disease?

A. III, IV, VI, X
B. II, V, VII
C. X, XI, XII
D. II, IV, VII

Ans: B

90. Pts with illness often have impaired orientation to:

A. person
B. place & time
C. Person, place & time
D. the future

Ans: B

91. Psychiatric problems are more linked to person than time & place. true or false?

A. true
B. false

Ans: A

92. Which of the following is NOT a form of mental status testing?

A. telling the pt 3 words and then having them recall them later in the appt.
B. asking the pt what time it is
C. asking the pt to count backwards from 7
D. ask pt to roll head from right to left
E. checking the pts speech for dysphonia

Ans: D

93. What is dysphonia?

A. inability to articulate
B. inability to understand or properly speak
C. inability to sound or hoarseness
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards

Ans: C

94. What is dysarthria?

A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards

Ans: B

95. What is dysphasia?

A. inability to articulate
B. inability to sound or hoarseness
C. inability to understand or properly speak
D. inability to say the alphabet backwards

Ans: C

96. Using the motor scale of 1-5 to determine tone and strength, 1 represents:

A. movement with gravity
B. full strength
C. feeble strength
D. this scale is not used to determine tone and strength

Ans: C

97. What is ataxia?

A. shuffling the first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging a leg or arm

Ans: C

98. What is hemiparesis?

A. shuffle for first few steps
B. walking like scissors
C. walking like there is something between legs
D. dragging leg or arm

Ans: D

99. With steppage, the individual lifts the foot higher in order to avoid tripping. true or false?

A. true
B. false

Ans: A

100. Pt with Cerebral palsy walk like there is something in between their legs. true or false?

A. true
B. false

Ans: B

101. You have the pt put their arms out in front of them, palms up, and close eyes. You notice on arm drifting. What is this test called?

A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatters

Ans: B

102. As part of the neurological exam you have pt stand straight with eyes closed to examine their sway. What is this test called?

A. Rhomberg
B. Pronator
C. McMurray
D. Osgood Schlatter

Ans: A

103. Which of the following is not an example of a deep tendon reflex?

A. biceps
B. gag
C. brachioradialis
D. achilles

Ans: B

104. Which of the following is not an example of a superficial reflex?

A. achilles
B. corneal
C. pupillary
D. Babinski

Ans: A

105. Testing a pts toe reflex to see if toes curl with the pressure of an object is called:

A. Osgood Schlatters test
B. McMurrays test
C. Babinski’s test
D. Robininski’s test

Ans: C

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